any conveyance of an interest in property by a married person without consent of the spouse is done in fraud of the marital rights unless the spouse joins in the transfer or unless it can be shown otherwise. What they're arguing is that the transfer by the wife to the son of the son's marital interest in the wife's 1/4 ownership interest is potentially a fraudulent transfer because the son didn't join in the deed back to himself. I'm pushing them to use the divorce decree as "showing otherwise."