Nowhere. It’s subjective. Someone watched the play and had to decide “was that enough time?” With no clear definition of what that means.

By the intent of the rule, he has possession after the tag, and it was not “simultaneous” or “immediate” that the ball came loose. There were multiple frames after the tag before it clearly came loose. After that it’s up to interpretation to determine if they controlled it sufficiently.

So yes, my argument is that there is time between when he has possession, and that it’s not as definitive as you are trying to make it sound.