Apr 10, 2008
11:33:41am
11:33:41am
Question for statisticians. . .
Does the same principle apply to Deal or No Deal? When there's $1M
left on the board and four cases left, is there still 1/26 chance
that they have the $1M, not a 1/4 chance? I've always assumed it
was still 1/26, but does the way DOND work change the stats?
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- El Careeb
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