Sep 15, 2014
12:03:19am
12:03:19am
I disagree. It absolutely has meaning.
Prohibiting pre-marital sex (like Baylor does in their Honor Code) is non-discriminatory because no one, whether gay or straight, can have sex unless they are married. This worked for decades…until gays could marry.
Now the analysis has changed to prohibiting premarital sex AND prohibiting marital sex ONLY if you are gay. This policy is now discriminating against gays (at least from the perspective of the courts and nearly every public university).
Now the analysis has changed to prohibiting premarital sex AND prohibiting marital sex ONLY if you are gay. This policy is now discriminating against gays (at least from the perspective of the courts and nearly every public university).
Originally posted on Sep 15, 2014 at 12:03:19am
Message modified by Josef K on Sep 15, 2014 at 12:05:26am
Message modified by Josef K on Sep 15, 2014 at 10:24:10am
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