You aren't making sense, at all. In your scenario, you automatically invested
20k in the S&P. But then on the other side you calculate earnings by saying you have a 20k mortgage. Why would you not calculate all the rental profits because the house would have been paid for IN FULL using the 20k?
This message has been modified
Originally posted on Jul 23, 2019 at 10:47:11pm
Message modified by byubyu on Jul 23, 2019 at 10:48:55pm
Message modified by byubyu on Jul 23, 2019 at 10:58:31pm